Because the State of California is declared to be an inseparable part of the United States of America by Constitution of the State of California, the highest legal authority for the State, the jurisdiction known as the county is defined by the United States Code. Title 1 of the United States Code is General Provisions. Section 2 of that title defines county: “The word “county” includes a parish, or any other equivalent subdivision of a State or Territory of the United States.”
So the land that is not owned by the United States is Not “county” Land, and is not in the Jurisdiction of the United States so then is in jurisdiction of the free inhabitants and their English common law jurisdiction.
The rumor that the US government often exceeds its jurisdiction has much validity to it.
This law is found many times throughout the Revenue and Taxation Code of the State of California:Â â€œIn this Stateâ€ or â€œin the Stateâ€ means within the exterior limits of the State of California and includes all territory within these limits owned by or ceded to the United States of America.
The “State” of California is not “California”.Â As the preceding definition for â€œin this Stateâ€ and â€œin the Stateâ€ explains, the State of California is â€œall territory within California owned or ceded to the United States of Americaâ€Â The explanation of what the â€œStateâ€ means merely restates Article 3 Section 1 of the Constitution.
Every compulation of the 50 State-State Statutes has in it the definition section the terms defined as for â€œin this Stateâ€ or â€œin the Stateâ€.Â The statutes are almost always meticulously written to even beguile the people and often the sharpest legal minds.
Officer did the alleged act take place on land owned or ceded………